Microbiology 2124
Exam 3
Nov. 22, 1999
David Demezas

General Instructions: Answer multiple choice questions on your scantron sheet. Choose the single most correct answer and mark the corresponding letter on your scantron sheet.

1. The five kingdom system of biological classification consists of all of the following except _______.
a. Animalia
b. Plantae
c. Protista
d. Monera (Procaryotae)
e. Protozoa

2. Which of the following is the correct taxonomic hierarchy from the most general to the more specific taxon?
a. domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species
b. kingdom, domain, phylum, class, family, order, genus, species
c. domain, kingdom, class, phylum, family, order, genus, species
d. kingdom, domain, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species
e. kingdom, domain, class, phylum, family, order, genus, species

3. A major difference between the procaryotes Archaea and Eubacteria is _______.
a. the absence of ribosomes in Archaea
b. the presence of a nucleus in Archaea
c. the absence of a peptidoglycan layer in Archaea
d. the presence of mitochondria in Eubacteria
e. the presence of a nucleus in Eubacteria

4. The evolutionary history of a group of organisms is known as their _________.
a. taxonomy
b. classification
c. identification
d. phylogeny
e. none of the above

5. The genera Bacillus and Lactobacillus are gram-negative rods and are not in the same family. This indicates that which one of the following is not sufficient to assign an organism to a taxon? a. Biochemical characteristics
b. DNA sequencing
c. DNA:DNA hybridization analysis
d. Morphological characteristics
e. Fatty acid profiles

6. The "bible" of bacterial taxonomy is ______.
a. the American Society for Microbiology
b. the National Type Culture Collection
c. the American Type Culture Collection
d. Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology
e. the Journal of Bacteriology

7. Which of the following is(are) correctly typed/written?
a. Es. Coli
b. Esherichia coli
c. escherichia coli
d. E. coli
e. b and d

8. True (A) or False (B): The results of 95 biochemical tests performed on 100 strains of the same species of bacteria (e.g., Staphylococcus aureus) must be identical for all 100 strains.

9. Strains of bacteria that are susceptible to a specific bacteriophage ________.
a. produce antibodies against the bacteriophage
b. produce plaques
c. agglutinate in immunoassays
d. produce restriction enzymes to prevent infection by the bacteriophage
e. none of the above are true.

10. Western blotting detects specific bacterial proteins by ________.
a. their reactions with specific antibodies
b. their hybridization with a labeled DNA probe
c. biochemical tests
d. their reactions with specific dyes (e.g., crystal violet)
e. their reactions with specific bacteriophages

11. Southern blotting detects specific sequences of DNA by __________.
a. DNA:DNA hybridization
b. RNA:DNA hybridization
c. DNA sequencing
d. antigen:antibody interactions
e. None of the above.

12 Identification of unknown bacteria using fatty acid profiles is based on which of the following macromolecule?
a. Phospholipids
b. DNA
c. Ribosomes
d. carbohydrates
e. the peptidoglycan layer

13. True (A) or False (B): Two unknown bacteria with the same G+C% must belong to the same species of bacteria.

14. 16S ribosomal RNA sequencing is used to determine the phylogenetic relationships between bacteria for all of the following reasons except _________.
a. All cells contain rRNA.
b. Closely related species have fewer differences than distantly related species
c. rRNA genes are highly conserved compared to other DNA sequences.
d. rRNA doesn't require culturing the organism.
e. Only Eubacteria have 16S rRNA genes.

15. A bacterial species is defined as _____________.
a. a population of bacteria that can sexually reproduce and produce viable offspring
b. a group of bacteria isolated from the same habitat (e.g., a puddle of water)
c. a population of bacteria with similar characteristics
d. a group of bacteria that are sensitive to a defined group of antibiotics
e. a population of bacteria with the same morphology

16. True (A) or False (B). Nosocomial infections are infections acquired in a hospital.

17. Gram negative bacteria may also be referred to as _______.
a. Gracilicutes
b. Firmicutes
c. Tenericutes
d. Archaea

18 Bacteria with axial filaments and were first described by Leeuwenhoek are classified as _____.
a. Streptococci
b. Staphylococci
c. Spirochetes
d. Pseudomonads

19. _________ is a gram-negative helical bacterium that has been implicated as a causative agent of ulcers.
a. Streptococcus pneumoniae
b. Rhizobium meliloti
c. Helicobacter pylori
d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
e. Staphylococcus aureus

20. Members of the family Enterobacteriaceae include all of the following except ________.
a. Escherichia
b. Salmonella
c. Klebsiella
d. Shigella
e. Bacteroides

21. Which of the following species of bacteria plays a role in the production of yogurt?
a. Lactobacillus
b. Escherichia
c. Azotobacter
d. Listeria
e. Mycobacteria

22. Which of the following is a gram-positive, endospore forming, rod that produces an insecticidal protein?
a. Corynebacteria
b. Bacillus
c. Clostridium
d. Staphylococcus
e. Lactobacillus

23. Which of the following uses sulfate or elemental sulfur as a terminal electron acceptor for anaerobic respiration?
a. Rickettsia
b. Mycoplasma
c. Desulfovibrio
d. Escherichia
e. Bacillus

24. Which of the following does not form a cell wall?
a. Mycoplasma
b. Pseudomonas
c. Staphylococcus
d. Streptococcus
e. Escherichia

25. True (A) or False (B): Streptococcus pneumoniae occurs as diplococci.

26. Caulobacter are characterized by all of the following except _______.
a. Stalk
b. Swarming cells
c. Non-motile cells
d. Oligotrophic
e. All of the above are characteristics of Caulobacter.

27. Chemoautotrophic bacteria get their energy from ________ for anabolic metabolism.
a. the oxidation of organic compounds
b. the sun
c. the reduction of oxidized compounds
d. the oxidation of reduced compounds
e. None of the above.

28. Which of the following phototrophic bacteria is oxygenic?
a. Purple sulfur bacteria
b. Green sulfur bacteria
c. Cyanobacteria
d. Purple nonsulfur bacteria
e. Green nonsulfur bacteria

29. The archaea _____ make methane from acetate or hydrogen gas and carbon dioxide.
a. Methanogens
b. Sulfate reducing bacteria
c. Nitrifiers
d. Denitrifiers
e. Enterics

30. True (A) or False (B): All cultured bacteria are too small to see with the unaided eye.

31. Most yeasts like Sacchromyces reproduce by ____.
a. budding
b. conidia
c. sporangia
d. basidia
e. None of the above

32. Eukaryotic, non-motile, non-photosynthetic organisms that absorb food from their environment are classified as _______.
a. Protozoa
b. Fungi
c. Algae
d. Lichens
e. bacteria

33. True (A) or False (B): Coenocytic hyphae contain no septa to divide hyphae into one nucleus cell-like units.

34. _____ are the "holding category" in which fungi are placed until sexual spores are observed.
a. Deuteromycota
b. Zygomycota
c. Ascomycota
d. Basidiomycota

35. Mushrooms belong to the phylum _________.
a. Deuteromycota
b. Zygomycota
c. Ascomycota
d. Basidiomycota

36. What nutritional types are found among algae?
a. Photoheterotroph
b. Chemolithotroph
c. Photoautotroph
d. Chemoautotroph
e. B and C

37. Agar used to solidify growth medium is derived from _____.
a. brown alga
b. red alga
c. green alga
d. cyanobacteria
e. None of the above

38. Red tides are due to the abundance of _________ in salt water.
a. Green algae
b. Diatoms
c. Dinoflagellates
d. Euglenoids
e. Brown algae

39. True (A) or False (B): Land plants may have evolved from brown alga.

40. Lichens are composed of a mutualistic association between _______.
a. Algae and bluegreen bacteria
b. Bacteria and algae
c. Fungi and algae
d. Fungi and heterotrophic bacteria
e. Protozoa and algae

41. _____ use pseudopods for motility
a. ciliates
b. mastigophora
c. amoebas
d. apicomplexa
e. microspora

42. Which of the following is not an obligate intracellular parasite?
a. Viruses
b. Chlamydia
c. Bacillus
d. Microspora
e. All of the above are obligate parasites.

For questions 43-45 complete the following:

43. _________ is the causative agent of malaria.
a. Trypanosoma
b. Giardia
c. Plasmodium

44. The definitive host were sexual reproduction occurs are _________
a. mosquitos
b. humans
c. Trypanosoma
d. Giardia

45. and the intermediate host were asexual reproduction occurs are _________.
a. Mosquitos
b. humans
c. Trypanosoma
d. Giardia
e. Escherichia

46. At what stage of the virus replication cycle does the virus bind to a host cell receptor?
a. Assembly
b. Penetration
c. Uncoating
d. Lysis
e. Attachment

47. Which of the following human viral infections has been eradicated?
a. Smallpox
b. AIDS
c. Measles
d. Common cold
e. Flu

48. Which of the following is not true?
a. Virus replication involves de novo synthesis of viral proteins.
b. Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites
c. Virus reproduces by binary fission
d. A and c
e. None of the above.

49. Of the following viruses, which one was the first virus recognized by a scientist?
a. Tobacco Mosaic virus
b. Human Immunodeficiency Virus
c. Herpes Virus
d. Smallpox Virus
e. None of the above

50. Viruses can be isolated from the following:
a. Animals only
b. Plants only
c. Fungi only
d. Bacteria only
e. All of the above.

For questions 51-55, if the statement is true, mark A or if the statement is false, mark B.
51. Bacteriophage lambda establishes lysogeny by inserting its DNA into the host cell's chromosome.
52. The genetic material of retroviruses is RNA.
53. Some viruses have a genome that consists of single-stranded DNA.
54. Some viruses can cause cancer.
55. Viruses are larger than bacteria.

For questions 56-60, match the genus with its description.